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December 02, 2005
humble response to katie's question
-What makes one dialect more aesthetically pleasing than another one?
From the readings that we have been doing lately, I formed this idea that this issue was more of a social/class attempt to separate “masters” from “servants” initally. Especially, in Britain it is considered fashionably fine to speak certain ways and to have certain dialects. For instance, in “Pygmalion” Eliza and Higgins illustrate this idea of having “advanced” and rational dialect puts you even in different social group. I suppose what really makes it “more aesthetically pleasing than another one” is that that person who speaks in “high-quality” dialect gets socially accepted by others who expect one another to have certain dialects.
Posted by lcisbold at December 2, 2005 10:00 AM